Anon asked Staff ago The Gemara in Bava Batra says, “Moses wrote his book, the story of Bilaam, Job, and eight verses in the Torah.”
A) What is “his book”?
B) What is the story of Bilaam–isn’t it included in the Torah (in the portion of Balak)?
C) Aren’t the eight verses an integral part of the Torah?
It should be noted that it would be difficult to explain “his book” as Deuteronomy (mentioned in the Prophets as the book of the teachings of Moses), for the eight verses are written in Deuteronomy.
N.B. In the gloss in Mesoret HaShas it is written that the Shelah wrote a reasonable explanation for this, but I don’t have that book.
Thank you,
A.A.
jsadmin Staff answered 22 years ago
Hello.
The precise citation is “Moses wrote his own book and the story of Bilaam and Job” (Bava Batra 14b). The discussion of who wrote the last eight verses in the Torah, which deal with the death of Moses, is a different discussion (see what we wrote on the portion of Devarim).
As to your question: “What is the story of Bilaam–isn’t it included in the Torah,” the question is a good one, and the words of Chazal are strange and puzzling.
Rashi explains Chazal’s need to note this because the story of Bilaam is not relevant to those who fulfill the commandments or, as Rashi puts it, “And the story of Bilaam, his prophecy and parable, even though they are not a requirement for Moses and his instruction and the tales of his deeds.” As though the other stories in the Torah are relevant–or as the Shelah HaKodesh said, “I have not merited understanding the words of Rashi; aren’t all the stories in the Torah, like Cain’s killing of Hevel, etc. not apparently necessary for the Torah and the tales of Moses’ deeds?”
The version in the Jerusalem Talmud is different: “Moses wrote the Pentateuch and went back and wrote the story of Balak and Bilaam” (Sotah 5:5).
I have thought of a daring interpretation. When Bilaam is mentioned in certain places in the Talmud, according to scholars (like Geiger) the intent is Jesus the Nazarene. A tolerable proof of this is the words of the Talmud (Sanhedrin 106b): “A certain heretic said to Rav Hanina: ‘Have you heard how old Bilaam was when he died?’ Rav Hanina replied: ‘It is not actually stated, but there is a hint in the verse, “Bloody and deceitful men shall not live out half their days” (Psalms 55). Evil people will not live out half their days. A man’s life is 70 years, so evil-doers live 33 or 34 years.’ The heretic rejoined, ‘You have said correctly; I personally have seen Bilaam’s Chronicle, in which it is written, ‘Bilaam the lame was thirty years old when Phineas the robber killed him’.” Geiger interpreted Bilaam to be Jesus, Bilaam’s Chronicle to be the Gospel, and Phineas the robber to be Pontius Pilate, the Roman governor who crucified Jesus.
If so, we can say something daring, that Moses wrote his book (the Torah) and Bilaam’s Chronicle (the Gospel).
About the “reasonable” interpretation written by the Shelah HaKodesh on the portion of Balak (Torah Or 2) I will briefly cite his words and the reader may judge if it is a reasonable interpretation: The Talmud’s meaning in writing “Moses wrote his book and the story of Bilaam” is that Moses caught and understood Bilaam’s prophecy and did not write it as a blind man taking dictation from G-d without understanding the words. According to the Shelah “Moses wrote” means that Moses understood.
Sincerely,
Daat Emet
jsadmin Staff answered 22 years ago
Hello.
Your questions are apt and they highlight the lack of clarity in the words of Chazal, who wrote in a careless manner and not precisely.
I will sharpen your question by adding the words of Nachmanides in the introduction to his commentary on the Torah: “And the reason for the writing of the Torah in this language [speaking of Moses] is because [the Torah] preceded the creation of the world, much less the birth of Moses our teacher, as has been taught by tradition, that it was written as black fire on white fire. And Moses is as a scribe copying from an ancient written book.”
Sincerely,
Daat Emet